Interpretting Luke 21:32 Correctly

This is one of the strongest verses used to show the Bible is not infallible; the 2nd coming did not actually occur while some of the people living then would still be alive. From Pulpit Commentary:

In the interpretation of this verse ... any non-natural sense for "generation" (γεμεά), such as being an equivalent for the Christian Church (Origen and Chrysostom) or the human race (Jerome) must be at once set aside.

If not "natural sense" what "sense" of "generation" makes these verse correct? I think none. Instead, it seems easier to suppose the claim was only about the collapse of the temple, which did happen within a generation.

What is the proper way to interpret this verse?

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Interpretting Luke 21:32 Correctly