What does Son of Man really mean

Jesus called Himself the Son of Man 83 times in the 4 Gospels. What did He mean. There is a two fold answer.

Jesus was referring to Daniel 7.

Quote:

Dan 7:13* I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him.* Dan 7:14* And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed.*

One like unto the son of man. He looked like a man but actually was the Son of God, the Messiah, Jesus Christ. The Jewish scribes and pharisees would have understood this meaning.

When Jesus calls himself the son of man 83 times, He is claiming to be both Human and God.

The Humanity part of Jesus is required for Him to be the Savior of mankind. Lets go all the way back to the Garden of Eden. Adam and Eve were the ancestors of all mankind. Everyone inherited the sin nature from Adam.

Quote:

1Co 15:21* For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead.* 1Co 15:22* For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.*

Quote:

Rom 5:12* Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:Rom 5:19* For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

According to the Bible, sin entered into the world by one human, Adam, and all of his children and progeny, humans, inherited the sin nature from him.

Jesus was not part of Adams inheritance as the sin nature is passed from the father to the children. Adam was the first human with a sin nature and passed it down to all. Jesus was the first human (God in the flesh with a human mother) without a sin nature (completely righteous) and passes that down to anyone who trust Him and believed He died on the cross, was buried and resurrected. Mary had a sin nature from her father but could not pass it to Jesus, else Jesus would have it and would not be sinless, righteous and would have to pay for His own sin. He could not have then been the Savior. Jesus had to human to be able to pay for human sins. But not His own because He is righteous.

Quote:

Joh 1:12* But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:*

When someone believes, they become a child of God, Jesus's progeny if you will

So Jesus emphasized His humanity by calling himself son of man (a reference to Daniel 7 as well) to underscore His ability to pay for human sin. The Jewish pharisees and scribes would have understood the Daniel 7 reference and would have become more incensed because Jesus was referencing His Messiah-ship and humanity each time He called Himself "son of man."

So when He did use this term, He was not indicating He was not God.

2Ti 2:15* Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

Check it out yourself.

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What does Son of Man really mean